Both are correct. we usually take an absolute value of the result of variance. Whether it's favorable or unfavorable depends on the nature of the subject of variance. Sometime, a negative figure may be good, but sometimes bad.
Referring to product cost, decrease in costs is favorable; if actual cost (AP) is lower than standard cost (SP), but if actual is placed in front of SP, it would be a negative figure but a favorable variance comes up. In the contrary, referring to sales volume, an actual higher sales volume of course prefers to a standard lower one. Both increase in volume and price for earned revenue is good; whereas they are bad for used costs.
Thus, we should compare the actual with the standard of the measure in the context, and then understand what we are looking at, instead of its' negative or positive value. We should also have a consistent presentation on individual variance computed otherwise the end result of profit variance would be distorted. Instead, we'd better use the U and F as annotations for unfavorable and favorable variance respectively.
Regards,
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Kam Sing LEUNG CFP, CPA, FCCA
Controller
Total Solution Consultancy (Hangzhou) Limited
Hangzhou
China
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Original Message:
Sent: 06-11-2013 04:35 AM
From: Pallavi Shirke
Subject: CMA Part 1 COST VARIANCE
I am studying for CMA Part 1 the exam date is 26/06/13. I have studied thru HOCK material and was going thru GLEIM and found that in HOCK the price variance is (AP - SP ) x AQ and in gleim it is ( SP - AP ) x AQ. for all the variances actual is subtracted from standard this will give a different answer for favorable and unfavorable. Which one is correct. Also can anybody help on how can i use the screen for essay questions. Appreciate your valuable answers.
Regards
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Pallavi Shirke
Accountant
Abu Dhabi
United Arab Emirates
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